MathematicsHard115×since 2008Q4314The following statement (p→q)→[(∼p→q)→q]\left( {p \to q} \right) \to \left[ {\left( { \sim p \to q} \right) \to q} \right](p→q)→[(∼p→q)→q] is :Aequivalent to ∼p→q{ \sim p \to q}∼p→qBequivalent to p→∼q{p \to \sim q}p→∼qCa fallacyDa tautologyCheck answerSkip