MathematicsMedium244×since 2002Q4496Let A = \left( {\matrix{ 1 & 2 \cr 3 & 4 \cr } } \right) and B = \left( {\matrix{ a & 0 \cr 0 & b \cr } } \right),a,b \in N. ThenAthere cannot exist any BBB such that AB=BAAB=BAAB=BABthere exist more then one but finite number of B′B'B′s such that AB=BAAB=BAAB=BACthere exists exactly one BBB such that AB=BAAB=BAAB=BADthere exist infinitely many B′B'B′s such that AB=BAAB=BAAB=BACheck answerSkip